1
It is also written in the same passage: “Moses spake and God answered him by a voice” (Ibid. \9). This voice, as has been elsewhere explained, is the voice of Moses, the Voice to which Moses attached himself. It may be asked, does it not say further on that “God spoke” (Ibid. xx, I), and not Moses?
2
Some explain that the reason was because the people said to Moses: “Speak thou with us and we will hear, but let not God speak with us” (Ibid. 19). But, in fact, there is no word in the Torah which Moses spoke on his own authority. Hence it says, “Moses spoke” with his own voice, “and God answered him with that mighty Voice”, confirming what he said.’
3
They asked R. Abba to continue, so he went on with the verse: